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Every nation gets the government it deserves.

– Joseph de Maistre

If that sentiment is actually true, and the citizens are indeed the ones to blame for bad, amoral, ineffective, corrupt governments, does this mean that the Germans became two very distinctly different nations in 1945 all of a sudden? What about Koreans?

And how come the two distinctly different German nations ended up being one single nation after all? Was that because they were not that different in the first place, and the difference between the governments was simply because one part was occupied by the USSR and the other wasn’t?

If so, what about Koreans? Are there two separate nations there after all? How come it was one nation before 1945?

Or was de Maistre wrong after all, and the government is not always the product of the society, even though it usually comprises of the people from that same society. Or at least that same nation. Or at least that same species.

Or does it?

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